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Jun 9 12 8:37 AM
the NKJV is following a different underlying text.
Jun 9 12 6:06 PM
did not prove or demonstrate at all that the NKJV is following a
different underlying text. You may be assuming or speculating, but that
is not proper proof.
Jun 9 12 7:46 PM
Another example of an opposite meaning because of different underlying texts is Isaiah 9:3.Isaiah 9:3 Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy: they joy before thee according to the joy in harvest,and as men rejoice when they divide the spoil.And again, this was discussed on FFF, with agreement as to the differing sources being translated (qere/ketiv).
Jun 9 12 7:57 PM
logos1560 wrote:Your accusation against the NKJV is again incorrect, and this is another example of KJV-only double standards. The
KJV translators themselves sometimes followed the Keri marginal notes
in the Hebrew Masoretic Text. Do KJV-only assert that the KJV
translators were departing from the Hebrew Masoretic Text and were
following a different text when the KJV translators themselves followed
the Keri marginal notes? The KJV translators even followed this same
exact marginal note that was at Isaiah 9:3 when it was found at several
other verses, putting the marginal note reading in the text in the KJV
several times. The hypocrisy and double standards in KJV-only
accusations against the NKJV are again on display.
Jun 9 12 8:15 PM
you are just playing games.
Jun 9 12 8:20 PM
fabricated accusation is false. Your KJV-only double standards and
your own accusation game are what is on display. Your acceptance of the
fallacies on which your fabricated KJV-onlyism depends has blinded you. (snip more added Bot).
Nov 28 12 5:40 PM
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