If I were to undertake the large task of starting with a KJV of the Bible and with that Bible open in front of me, re-write it from start to finish changing such words as "thy, thee, and thou", as well as other words no longer used in the same way today (like the word "pricks" in Acts 9:5 and 26:14), to their modern counterparts, would I have a "per-version"? Yes or no. Why or why not? After all, it's still based on the same manuscripts.