glorybe429 wrote:

who's belief comes clearly from "interpretations of men"/"traditions of men".


It is the opinions concerning one infallible translation-only that clearly come from "interpretations of men or traditions of men." Men could hear or read the word of God before a KJV ever existed. Are you trying to imply that the word of God did not exist before 1611 or that no one could have faith before 1611?