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Posts: 3154
Apr 18 09 5:22 PM
Shain1611 wrote: When I read in my King James Bible that God promised to keep all of His words forever, I'm the type of person who actually believes God did exactly that.
Are you in effect saying that English-speaking believers in 1560 were supposed to accept every word of the English Bible that God had provided them as pure and perfect? According to the consistent application of this type KJV-only reasoning, the KJV-only view in effect permits Church of England scholars in 1611 to sit in judgment on the Protestant Reformation Text and the Holy Bible in English [the Geneva Bible] and to alter and introduce changes in it. Were any of the changes that the KJV translators made in the Geneva Bible simply for the sake of variety? Were any of the changes that the KJV translators made in the Geneva Bible the result of doctrinal bias or the result of an effort to promote Episcopal church government? According to a consistent application of some KJV-only reasoning, did those Church of England scholars usurp the authority of the Book of the English-speaking believers in their day [the Geneva Bible] in order to assert their own authority [for example, see p. 34 in Ruckman's Biblical Scholarship]? According to the text of the Geneva Bible, did God promise to keep all the English words of the 1560 Geneva Bible forever? Are you in effect claiming that God did not keep His promises to the many readers of the 1560 Geneva Bible since God permitted later translators to change and revise many of its words?
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