Shain1611 wrote:


Now , if the sources are corrupt what will that do to its end product?

Were all the sources consulted or used by the KJV translators in the making of the KJV perfect and infallible?

While the main sources for the making of the KJV could be considered the pre-1611 English Bibles (Tyndale's to Bishops') and the original language texts, the KJV translators also consulted or made use of a number of other sources.

Among those other sources could be included the Latin Vulgate of Jerome as printed in the day of the KJV translators, the Greek LXX, the 1582 Roman Catholic Rheims New Testament, commentaries of unsaved Jews, the Spanish Bibles of their day, translations in other languages. Some of the Lexicons for Hebrew and Greek available in their day and that they likely consulted had as definitions for the O. T. Hebrew words or for the N. T. Greek words the words of the Latin Vulgate. If the KJV translators consulted any "corrupt" sources, do you claim that it affected their end product?