Since the KJV translators translated Hebrew Word #3068
as both "JEHOVAH" and as "The LORD",
Can we determine which of the two KJV translations of Hebrew Word #3068
is more correct
by comparison to the greater authority:
the preserved Scriptures in the original languages.


In this case, of course the preserved scriptures in the original language,
would be an extant copy of the Ben Chayyim Hebrew Text.

Extant copies of the Ben Chayyim Hebrew Text do exist in 2008.

It would appear that "the LORD"
would only be a better translation of Hebrew Word #3068,
than "JEHOVAH" is,
if Hebrew Word #3068 was an example of "Qere Perpetuum".

As shown in the upper image below,
the editors of the Brown-Driver-Briggs Lexicion,
believe that Hebrew Word #3068 is indeed an example of Qere Perpetuum.

The Jewish people believe likewise.

image

Exodus

P.S.

If the KJV translation "The LORD"
was proven to be a more correct translation of Hebrew Word #3068,
than the KJV translation "JEHOVAH" is
wouldn't that indicate that God's name is not actually "JEHOVAH" ,
and that there is a major error in the King James Bible.

So the question remains:
By what authority is Hebrew Word #3068 translated as "The LORD"?

Exodus