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The KJV accepts multiple versions
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Re: The KJV accepts multiple versions
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steelmaker
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Jun 27 08 7:01 PM
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My Recent Posts
MaricoG:
I know there are many that believe this, but I believe it is false.
With all due respect, all the EVIDENCE sez otherwise.
I do believe that in the new versions, they are perversions of God's word,
A belief you CANNOT PROVE.
however...I certainly believe God can use those new versions to bring people to Christ!
OF COURSE He can...they're HIS WORD.
He used a talking ass, He can certainly use a new version of His word.
And He DOES.
Once someone is saved, I believe they will mature spiritually using the KJB, the pure word of God, and not a diluted, changed, by adding and subtracting words and whole verses from God's word.
The KJV is no more 'pure' than any other.
Lessee YOUR opinion of these obvious goofs in the KJV. Now, this isn't ALL of them; these are just clear examples.
First, "Easter" in Acts 12:4. Easter didn't exist when Luke wrote Acts, and the greek word he used was 'pascha', which at that time meant only PASSOVER.
Now, "the love of money is *THE* root of *ALL* evil" in 1 Tim. 6:10. This simply isn't true. Did Dahmer kill for money? How about the suicide bombers in palestine or Iraq? And their acts were about as evil as an evil can be.
And the KJV omits "through Our Lord Jesus Christ" in Jude 25. So, the KJV aint perfect.
If someone is searching for the truth of God, they will find it in the KJB.
And in any other valid version.
When I came to the Lord it was through a Gideon Bible in a hotel room, and I understood it perfectly, even though previously the Bible had no meaning to me whatsoever. And a cult is going to twist any version as well as the word of God...Most likely they twist the KJB, simply BECAUSE it IS the word of God...sheesh.
It's the worda God, same as any other valid version, old or new.
Yes, and? They were translating into the common language which was English, so that the common man could read the word of God. That is exactly what they did and exactly what we have in the KJB.
And that's exactly why God caused the newer versions to be made, as He caused/allowed the language to change.
Now, let's deal with your "Lucifer" thingie.
First, you've apparently been reading some of the garbage written by Terry Watkins. Here's the STRAIGHT SKINNY on this. "Lucifer' is a LATIN name, meaning "bearer, or bringer, of light". It's a shortened term for lucem(light) ferre(bearer). It was a Roman name for Venus when it appeared at dawn before sunrise.(It was called 'Hesperus' when it appeared at evening.)
The Hebrew word here is 'helel', which also means 'bringer of light'. Thus, 'morning star' is JUST AS CORRECT here!
And the AV1611, the ORIGINAL KJV, has this marginal note for Lucifer..."Or, O day starre".
Bur wait! The KJVOs say JESUS is the morning star! But, is He the ONLY ONE?
Newp!
Jesus said in Rev. 22:16 that He's the bright and morning star.
BUT.........
In Rev.2:28, he sez, "and I will give him(the believer) the MORNING STAR. Obviously, that's not HIMSELF.
And Job 38:7 sez "when the MORNING STARS sang together..."
So, ya plainly see that the silly KJVO notion that "the NIV subs Jesus for Satan at Isaiah 14:12" is hogwash. There are lotsa morning stars in Scripture. But Jesus is theonly BRIGHT AND morning star.
MaricoG, I hope ya check behind me to see I've given ya the straight skinny. I use EVIDENCE to disprove the KJVO stuff, not opinion & guesswork as the KJVOs use to tryta justify their myth.
"robycop3 - The avowed enemy of ALL man-made doctrines of worship!"
Last Edited By:
steelmaker
Jun 27 08 7:08 PM. Edited 1 times.
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