CJSAV1611,

You and I hopefully agree that the Holy Spirit inspired the Scriptures. We also agree (I think) that the original Hebrew manuscripts are not available. Therefore we are left with the manuscripts that we do have in order to translate the Scriptures into English.

Of course authors can change whatever they want to change when they are recording what happened, so long as what they write accurately represents what happened. But sometimes when two accounts differ as to what a person said we are left with uncertainties as to what the original text should be.

My original premise was that the KJV accepts multiple versions.

I raised a question that I don't know the answer to. I don't know whether God said "entice", or whether He said "persuade". My purpose in asking the question was to say that there are times when we just can't be absolutely certain what the exact wording should be. That is exactly the position taken by the KJV translators.

KJVO people have often claimed that to have multiple versions of the same text means that one of the versions cannot be the Word of God, since we must know with exact precision (in English) what God inspired. They say that only one version can possibly be right.

Do you agree with me that within the KJV I have cited two different versions of the same speech?