Hi Shain,

When I wrote "Some KJVO people find that variant readings of the same quote are OK as long as they mean the same thing" you responded "Can you quote any of these KJV Scholars so we can all know who they might be?"

My source was Wil Kinney, who, when I gave him an example similar to one I used above responded this way: "Why is this a problem for you? Don't both phrases mean the same thing? This really seems like a silly example. Six of one, half a dozen or the other." I took that to mean that in his opinion if two different quotes mean the same thing then they are acceptable. If I am wrong about his position then I will happily stand corrected.

I'd like to know what you mean by "The Holy Spirit who by the way is the Author deceided to change it up a bit". What does that mean? Are you saying He changed a direct quote?

What's wrong with the fact that I agree 100% with the position taken by the translators of the KJV? How does make me a person who is not a Bible believer?
They were certainly Bible believers, and yet they were the first to admit that their finished work was a not perfect.

Again, please answer my question directly: In the example I cited above what exactly did God say? Was it "Who shall persuade Ahab", or was it ""Who shall entice Ahab"?