Hi Brother Tim,

Would you be willing to answer "in depth" at least the one illustration I gave, that is, the fact that one text quotes God as saying "Who shall persuade Ahab", while the other quotes Him as saying "Who shall entice Ahab"?
They are obviously quotes from the exact same speech, and yet they are different.

For whatever reason God chose to allow multuple accounts of some events, and allowed some variations between them. That is a simple fact.

The question is, why did He allow that to happen? My response to that question is: I don't know.

It's similar to the question the KJV translators faced when trying to determine which of multiple possible wordings should be included in the text and which should be excluded. They believed that the important messages of the Scriptures were preserved despite the imperfections in the texts from which they worked.

I'm certainly not trying to argue that God's Word is flawed. I am, however, arguing that our English translation does in fact have places of uncertainty. The KJV translators themselves agreed with my position, and yet they believed (as I do) that those "blemishes" do not detract from the important truths that God wants us to understand.

You believe that I have swallowed Satan's lie. What doctrines am I likely to believe that are different from yours? Other that the Bible version issue, how have I fallen into heresy?

Also, what doctrines are KJV people most likely to agree upon, since they are all using the same perfect translation?

Do you agree with bibleprotector's doctrinal positions? Have you examined them? His positions are derived from the KJV, just as yours are.