steelmaker,

To begin with, the Passover occurred before the feast of unleavened bread, not after!


I just pointed out Scripture that shows it was still going on. The paschal meal was merely the first rite of the entire observance.

"And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the Lord. And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast of unleavened breadseven days shall unleavened bread be eaten" (Num. 28:16,17). See also Mark 14:12; 1 Cor. 5:7,8, etc.

Ezekiel wrote AFTER the pentateuch was written. GOD HIMSELF called passover an ENTIRE WEEK in Eze. 45:21. John does likewise in John 18:28.I rest my case on SCRIPTURE.

Herod put Peter in prison during the days of unleavened bread, and therefore after the Passover.

Then why did Luke write 'after passover'?

The argument that the translation "Passover" should have been used as it is intended to refer to the entire period, is ruled out by the inclusion of "these were the days of unleavened bread."

Actually, just the opposite is true. The DOUB were part of Passover Week.

Scripture does not use the word "Passover" to refer to the entire period.

Shain1611


Ezekiel 45:21!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

At any rate, Luke wrote 'pascha', which meant only 'passover' in his day. this word is rendered 'passover' in each of the other 28 times it appears in the Greek. There's simply no excuse for the KJV to have rendered it 'Easter' in that one instance.