Quote:
When you prove too much you in fact prove nothing at all.


What do you mean exactly by your statement? Can you prove that your statement above is true or valid? Are you willing to apply your statement to the KJV-only view? If the KJV-only view attempts to prove too much, does it in fact prove nothing at all?

Is your statement claiming that if accurate, reliable information or facts are provided but if those facts are more evidence than holders of the other view claim is required or needed that it supposedly proves nothing at all?

Perhaps you could explain what you mean by your statement.