Now, while I can't sit here & say for sure just what version it was, JESUS certainly read from another version of Isaiah in Luke 4:16-21. The reading is close to, but doesn't exactly match the LXX. I can't rule out His having read from some vorlage Hebrew version, but, given the known prevalence of the Greek language in that time/place, we certainly can't rule out Jesus' using the LXX, can we?

I must agree with Bibleprotector on this one, even though I don't believe any of his jive about purification at all.